I'm curious -- can anyone answer the question why "Daguerrean" became "Daguerreian"? It was mostly spelled without an "i" until the 1960s, then the spelling with the "i" became more prevalent. See the attached Google Ngram graphs for more details.
Excellent question. I am not certain of how the i would have snuck in there, but to me it seems unnaturally complicated. Perhaps a nod to Machiavellian, as a scheme to make things more complicated than they really are?
It is interesting to see how the name of Daguerre is much less frequent than 175 years ago in the graph (either French or English language).
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